/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/askhistorians
At what point did the Catholic church realize the true scope Protestantism reformation , and that they weren't going to be able to simply stamp it out like they had done with the Cathars and Waldensians?
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Did medieval (say, High Middle Ages) noble or educated people receive education in politics/geography and "current events"? Would a German monk, or say, the second son of a French nobleman know who the current e.g. King of England was? If so, would they know who e.g. the Earl of Northumbria was?
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When did being 'smart' (i.e.: nerdy) become an object of scorn? Is this a feature of mid-20th century culture, or do the roots run deeper?
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Did empty houses exist in Ancient Greece or Rome or other places for the sole purpose of economic speculation?
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The Norse people were shown to be capable raiders, especially in the British Isles. The Anglo-Saxons despite divided were socially and militarily organised, why did they, or others, never seek or attempt to attack Scandinavia?
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390 upvotes
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